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Is it true that contracted payments are optional when they are between an employer and an employee? That's the clear implication of an article in today's newspaper...
In the article Daniel Emerson writes that, "builder [P1] claimed it had paid contractor [P2], which claimed the opposite, with the result that workers had not been paid" (Workers angry over pay confusion, The West, 18 Jan 2011). Let's get that straight:
- P1 has contracted P2 to do some work.
- P2 has done the work.
- P1 and P2 disagree over whether or not P1 had paid P2 for the work. Meanwhile...
- P2 has employed workers to do some work.
- The workers -- employees? contractors? -- have done the work.
- P2 has not paid the workers for the work that has been done.
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